wiring schematics for a 1 ohm stable amp with 4 ohm and 2 ohm speakers

[Brycestro]

Hey hey everybody... I've got some audio equipment planned and am looking at my best wiring options with a four channel amp (I'm not after amp recommendations at the moment, only wanting to know the best wiring option considering the impedances given in this post). Ok, heres the equipment run down...

2 x 4 ohm speakers
2 x 2 ohm speakers
1 x 1 ohm stable 4 channel amplifier

I've been looking at the following site to try and get a bit of an idea of stuff but it's still all a bit over my head at the moment:
http://www.bcae1.com/spkrmlti.htm

Which is why i'm asking here! Thanks everyone

[dephilile]

is this for a sub? splits or what?

[Brycestro]

6.5" rears 4 ohm, 6.5" splits front 2 ohm, all run from amp

[dephilile]

I’m sorry. I am still not quite sure what you want help with. If you want to run four speakers off a 4 channel amp what do you need to configure? Just make sure the amp can handle 2 ohm loads in single channels and connect each speaker up to the correct channel.

You wouldn’t want to bridge any channels and run the speakers in series or parallel because you would then have a mono system, not stereo (has left and right channels).

[StoneX]

What speakers are 2 ohm?

Why do you want to know? Just hook each speaker up to each channel. As far as I know, all car audio amps can do 2 ohm from individuals channels, so there is no problems there.

[Brycestro]

First of all, sorry... i don't think i made myself very clear at all looking back and i think i should attempt to clarify and get some things straight. Firstly, try and forget my stupid first post...

Ok... so with a 4 channel amplifier... which has been specified as being 2 ohm stable, i can safely run two 4 ohm speakers from two of the channels and two 2 ohm speakers from the other two channels yes? In a situation like this would it be correct to say that being as it is a four channel amp each speaker is hooked up to an individual channel and as such each speaker operates independently of one another such that the resistance of one speaker really has nothing to do with the resistance of another speaker? (i.e. there is no need to be worried about dealing with series, parallel and bridging in this scenario)? Is this correct?

Thanks for trying to interpret my gooble-de-goop.

[dephilile]

In short I think the answer to your question is yes

If you had a two channel amp with a 4 ohm speaker connected to one channel and a 2 ohm speaker connected to another channel the different impedance (basically resistance) of each channel would not effect the other. What would happen is the channel with the 2ohm speaker connected would work harder and pump out more power.

Does that answer your question?

[StoneX]

All channels are individual as you said, so the speaker's impedence won't effect any other channels. So yes, what you said is correct.